NCLEX-RN Final Exams Questions NCLEX-RN FINAL EXAMS QUESTIONS You Have 3hrs 30mins To Answer All 250 Questions Sorry your time has elapse. NCLEX-RN FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS DION Healthcare Academy 1 / 50 The nurse would expect to include which of the following when planning the management of the client with Lyme disease? High-protein diet with limited fluids Complete bed rest for 68 weeks Tetracycline treatment Tetracycline treatment Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) The client is not placed on complete bed rest for 6 weeks. (B) Tetracycline is the treatment of choice for children with Lyme disease who are over the age of 9. (C) IV amphotericin B is the treatment for histoplasmosis. (D) The client is not restricted to a high-protein diet with limited fluids. 2 / 50 Which of the following statements relevant to a suicidal client is correct? The more specific a client’s plan, the more likely he or she is to attempt suicide. Nurses who care for a client who has attempted suicide should not make any reference to the word "suicide" in order to protect the client’s ego. A client who is unsuccessful at a first suicide attempt is not likely to make future attempts. A client who threatens suicide is just seeking attention and is not likely to attempt suicide. Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) This is a high-risk factor for potential suicide. (B) A previous suicide attempt is a definite risk factor for subsequent attempts. (C) Every threat of suicide should be taken seriously. (D) The client should be asked directly about his or her intent to do bodily harm. The client is never hurt by direct, respectful questions. 3 / 50 The predominant purpose of the first Apgar scoring of a newborn is to: Determine the extent of congenital malformations Obtain a baseline for comparison with the infant’s future adaptation to the environment Determine gross abnormal motor function Evaluate the infant’s vital functions Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Apgar scores are not related to the infant’s care, but to the infant’s physical condition. (B) Apgar scores assess the current physical condition of the infant and are not related to future environmental adaptation. (C) The purpose of the Apgar system is to evaluate the physical condition of the newborn at birth and to determine if there is an immediate need for resuscitation. (D) Congenital malformations are not one of the areas assessed with Apgarscores. 4 / 50 A 3-year-old child is hospitalized with burns covering her trunk and lower extremities. Which of the following would the nurse use to assess adequacy of fluid resuscitation in the burned child? Urine output Pulse rate Serum potassium level Blood pressure Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Blood pressure can remain normotensive even in a state of hypovolemia. (B) Serum potassium is not reliable for determining adequacy of fluid resuscitation. (C) Urine output, alteration in sensorium, and capillary refill are the most reliable indicators for assessing adequacy of fluid resuscitation. (D) Pulse rate may vary for many reasons and is not a reliable indicator for assessing adequacy of fluid resuscitation. 5 / 50 Which of the following procedures is necessary to establish a definitive diagnosis of breast cancer? Thermography Diaphanography Breast tissue biopsy Mammography Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Diaphanography, also known as transillumination, is a painless, noninvasive imaging technique that involves shining a light source through the breast tissue to visualize the interior. It must be used in conjunction with a mammogram and physical examination. (B) Mammography is a useful tool for screening but is not considered a means of diagnosing breast cancers. (C) Thermography is a pictorial representation of heat patterns on the surface of the breast. Breast cancers appear as a "hot spot" owing to their higher metabolic rate. (D) Biopsy either by needle aspiration or by surgical incision is the primary diagnostic technique for confirming the presence of cancer cells. 6 / 50 An 8-year-old child comes to the physician’s office complaining of swelling and pain in the knees. His mother says, "The swelling occurred for no reason, and it keeps getting worse." The initial diagnosis is Lyme disease. When talking to the mother and child, questions related to which of the following would be important to include in the initial history? Headaches, malaise, or sore throat A fever of over 103F occurring over the last 23 weeks Rashes covering the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet A decreased urinary output and flank pain Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Urinary tract symptoms are not commonly associated with Lyme disease. (B) A fever of 103F is not characteristic of Lyme disease. (C) The rash that is associated with Lyme diseasedoes not appear on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. (D) Classic symptoms of Lyme disease include headache, malaise, fatigue, anorexia, stiff neck, generalized lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, conjunctivitis, sore throat, abdominal pain, and cough. 7 / 50 A client is 6 weeks pregnant. During her first prenatal visit, she asks, "How much alcohol is safe to drink during pregnancy?" The nurse’s response is: Up to 2 oz daily No alcohol Up to 1 oz daily Up to 4 oz weekly Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A, B, C) No amount of alcohol has been determined safe for pregnant women. Alcohol should be avoided owing to the risk of fetal alcohol syndrome. (D) The recommended safe dosage of alcohol consumption during pregnancy is none. 8 / 50 A six-month-old infant has been admitted to the emergency room with febrile seizures. In the teaching of the parents, the nurse states that: There is little risk of neurological deficit and mental retardation as sequelae to febrile seizures Febrile seizures do not usually recur Sustained temperature elevation over 103F is generally related to febrile seizures Febrile seizures are associated with diseases of the central nervous system 9 / 50 A pregnant woman at 36 weeks’ gestation is followed for PIH and develops proteinuria. To increase protein in her diet, which of the following foods will provide the greatest amount of protein when added to her intake of 100 mL of milk? One package vitamin-fortified gelatin drink One small scoop (90 g) vanilla ice cream and 1 tbsp chocolate syrup Thirty grams powdered skim milk and 1 egg Fifty milliliters light cream and 2 tbsp corn syrup Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) This choice would provide more unwanted fat and sugar than protein. (B) Skim milk would add protein. Eggs are good sources of protein while low in fat and calories. (C) The benefit of protein from ice cream would be outweighed by the fat content. Chocolate syrup has caffeine, which is contraindicated or limited in pregnancy. (D) Although most animal proteins are higher in protein than plant proteins, gelatin is not. It loses protein during the processing for food consumption. 10 / 50 The nurse should know that according to current thinking, the most important prognostic factor for a client with breast cancer is: Client’s level of estrogen-progesterone receptor assays Axillary node status Client’s previous history of disease Tumor size Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Although tumor size is a factor in classification of cancer growth, it is not an indicator of lymph node spread. (B) Axillary node status is the most important indicator for predicting how far the cancer has spread. If the lymph nodes are positive for cancer cells, the prognosis is poorer. (C) The client’s previous history of cancer puts her at an increased risk for breast cancer recurrence, especially if the cancer occurred in the other breast. It does not predict prognosis, however. (D) The estrogen-progesterone assay test is used to identify present tumors being fedfrom an estrogen site within the body. Some breast cancers grow rapidly as long as there is an estrogen supply such as from the ovaries. The estrogen-progesterone assay test does not indicate the prognosis. 11 / 50 The most commonly known vectors of Lyme disease are: Ticks Fleas Mites Mosquitoes Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Mites are not the common vector of Lyme disease. (B) Fleas are not the common vector of Lyme disease. (C) Ticks are the common vector of Lyme disease. (D) Mosquitoes are not the common vector of Lyme disease. 12 / 50 When assessing a child with diabetes insipidus, the nurse should be aware of the cardinal signs of: Anemia and vomiting Irritability relieved by feeding formula Hypothermia and azotemia Polyuria and polydipsia Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Anemia and vomiting are not cardinal signs of diabetes insipidus. (B) Polyuria and polydipsia are the cardinal signs of diabetes insipidus. (C) Irritability relieved by feeding water, not formula, is a common sign, but not the cardinal sign, of diabetes insipidus. (D) Hypothermia and azotemia are signs, but not cardinal signs, of diabetes insipidus. 13 / 50 Discharge teaching was effective if the parents of a child with atopic dermatitis could state the importance of: Wrapping hands in soft cotton gloves Furry, soft stuffed animals for play Maintaining a high-humidified environment Showering 34 times a day Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Maintaining a low-humidified environment. (B) Avoiding furry, soft stuffed animals for play, which may increase symptoms of allergy. (C) Avoiding showering, which irritates the dermatitis, and encouraging bathing 4 times a day in colloid bath for temporary relief. (D) Wrapping hands in soft cotton gloves to prevent skin damage during scratching. 14 / 50 Which of the following findings would be abnormal in a postpartal woman? Chills shortly after delivery An oral temperature of 101F (38.3C) on the third day after delivery Urinary output of 3000 mL on the second day after delivery Pulse rate of 60 bpm in morning on first postdelivery day Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Frequently the mother experiences a shaking chill immediately after delivery, which is related to a nervous response or to vasomotor changes. If not followed by a fever, it is clinically innocuous. (B) The pulse rate during the immediate postpartal period may be low but presents no cause for alarm. The body attempts to adapt to the decreased pressures intra-abdominally as well as from the reduction of blood flow to the vascular bed. (C) Urinary output increases during the early postpartal period (1224 hours) owing to diuresis. The kidneys must eliminate an estimated 20003000 mL of extracellular fluid associated with a normal pregnancy. (D) A temperature of 100.4F (38C) may occur after delivery as a result of exertion and dehydration of labor. However, any temperature greater than 100.4F needs further investigation to identify any infectious process. 15 / 50 When teaching a sex education class, the nurse identifies the most common STDs in the United States as: Syphilis Gonorrhea Herpes genitalis Chlamydia Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Chlamydia trachomatis infection is the most common STD in the United States. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend screening of all high-risk women, such as adolescents and women with multiple sex partners. (B) Herpes simplex genitalia is estimated to be found in 5-20 million people in the United States and is rising in occurrence yearly. (C) Syphilis is a chronic infection caused by Treponema pallidum. Over the last several years the number of people infected has begun to increase. (D) Gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by the organism Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Although gonorrhea is common, chlamydia is still the most common STD. 16 / 50 A child sustains a supracondylar fracture of the femur. When assessing for vascular injury, the nurse should be alert for the signs of ischemia, which include: Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis Generalized swelling, pain, and diminished functional use with muscle rigidity and crepitus Bleeding, bruising, and hemorrhage Increase in serum levels of creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate transaminase Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Bleeding, bruising, and hemorrhage may occur due to injury but are not classic signs of ischemia. (B) An increase in serum levels of creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate transaminase is related to the disruption of muscle integrity. (C) Classic signs of ischemia related to vascular injury secondary to long bone fractures include the five "P’s": pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis. (D) Generalized swelling, pain, and diminished functional use with muscle rigidity and crepitus are common clinical manifestations of a fracture but not ischemia. 17 / 50 The therapeutic blood-level range for lithium is: 0.51.5 mEq/L 1.02.0 mEq/L 0.251.0 mEq/L 2.02.5 mEq/L Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) This range is too low to be therapeutic. (B) This is the therapeutic range for lithium. (C) This range is above the therapeutic level. (D) This range is toxic and may cause severe side effects. 18 / 50 A psychotic client who believes that he is God and rules all the universe is experiencing which type of delusion? Somatic Grandiose Persecutory Nihilistic Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) These delusions are related to the belief that an individual has an incurable illness. (B) These delusions are related to feelings of self-importance and uniqueness. (C) These delusions are related to feelings of being conspired against. (D) These delusions are related to denial of self- existence. 19 / 50 The priority nursing goal when working with an autistic child is: To promote involvement in school activities To establish trust with the child To establish trust with the child To maintain communication with the family Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) The priority nursing goal when working with an autistic child is establishing a trusting relationship. (B) Maintaining a relationship with the family is important but having the trust of the child is a priority. (C) To promote involvement in school activities is inappropriate for a child who is autistic. (D) Maintaining nutritional requirements is not the primary problem of the autistic child. 20 / 50 Provide the 1-minute Apgar score for an infant born with the following findings: Heart rate: Above 100 Respiratory effort: Slow, irregular Muscle tone: Some flexion of extremities Reflex irritability: Vigorous cry Color: Body pink, blue extremities 9 7 8 10 Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Seven out of a possible perfect score of 10 is correct. Two points are given for heart rate above 100; 1 point is given for slow, irregular respiratory effort; 1 point is given for some flex- ion of extremities in assessing muscle tone; 2 points are given for vigorous cry in assessing reflex irritability; 1 point is assessed for color when the body is pink with blue extremities (acrocyanosis). (B) For a perfect Apgar score of 10, the infant would have a heart rate over 100 but would also have a good cry, active motion, and be completely pink. (C) For an Apgar score of 8 the respiratory rate, muscle tone, or color would need to fall into the 2-point rather than the 1-point category. (D) For this infant to receive an Apgar score of 9, four of the areas evaluated would need ratings of 2 points and one area, a rating of 1 point. 21 / 50 A client confides to the nurse that he tasted poison in his evening meal. This would be an example of what type of hallucination? Auditory Olfactory Gustatory Visceral Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Auditory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of hearing. (B) Gustatory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of taste. (C) Olfactory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of smell. (D) Visceral hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of sensation. 22 / 50 A client with bipolar disorder taking lithium tells the nurse that he has ringing in his ears, blurred vision, and diarrhea. The nurse notices a slight tremor in his left hand and a slurring pattern to his speech. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate? Give an oral dose of lithium antidote. Request an order for a stat blood lithium level. Administer a stat dose of lithium as necessary. Recognize this as an expected response to lithium. Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) These symptoms are indicative of lithium toxicity. A stat dose of lithium could be fatal. (B) These are toxic effects of lithium therapy. (C) The client is exhibiting symptoms of lithium toxicity, which may be validated by lab studies. (D) There is no known lithium antidote. 23 / 50 A client returns for her 6-month prenatal checkup and has gained 10 lb in 2 months. The results of her physical examination are normal. How does the nurse interpret the effectiveness of the instruction about diet and weight control? She is compliant with her diet as previously taught. She needs to be placed on a restrictive diet immediately. She needs further instruction and reinforcement. She needs to increase her caloric intake. Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) She is probably not compliant with her diet and exercise program. Recommended weight gain during second and third trimesters is approximately 12 lb. (B) Because of her excessive weight gain of 10 lb in 2 months, she needs re-evaluation of her eating habits and reinforcement of proper dietary habits for pregnancy. A 2200-calorie diet is recommended for most pregnant women with a weight gain of 2730 lb over the 9-month period. With rapid and excessive weightgain, PIH should also be suspected. (C) She does not need to increase her caloric intake, but she does need to re-evaluate dietary habits. Ten pounds in 2 months is excessive weight gain during pregnancy, and health teaching is warranted. (D) Restrictive dieting is not recommended during pregnancy. 24 / 50 A 30-year-old male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. For the last 2 months, his family describes him as being "on the move," sleeping 34 hours nightly, spending lots of money, and losing approximately 10 lb. During the initial assessment with the client, the nurse would expect him to exhibit which of the following? Introspection related to his present situation Short, polite responses to interview questions Feelings of helplessness and hopelessness Exaggerated self-importance Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients have short attention spans and may be abusive toward authority figures. (B) Introspection requires focusing and concentration; clients with mania experience flight of ideas, which prevents concentration. (C) Grandiosity and an inflated sense of self-worth are characteristic of this disorder. (D) Feelings of helplessness and hopelessness are symptoms of the depressive stage of bipolar disorder. 25 / 50 A client has been diagnosed as being preeclamptic. The physician orders magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is used in the management of preeclampsia for: Fetal lung protection Prevention of uterine contractions Prevention of seizures Sedation Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) MgSO4 is classified as an anticonvulsant drug. In preeclampsia management, MgSO4 is used for prevention of seizures. (B) MgSO4 has been used to inhibit hyperactive labor, but results are questionable. (C) Negative side effects such as respiratory depression should not be confused with generalized sedation. (D) MgSO4 does not affect lung maturity. The infant should be assessed for neuromuscular and respiratory depression. 26 / 50 A 38-year-old pregnant woman visits her nurse practitioner for her regular prenatal checkup. She is 30 weeks’ gestation. The nurse should be alert to which condition related to her age? Intrauterine growth retardation Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) Iron-deficiency anemia Sexually transmitted disease (STD) Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Iron-deficiency anemia can occur throughout pregnancy and is not age related. (B) STDs can occur prior to or during pregnancy and are not age related. (C) Intrauterine growth retardation is an abnormal process where fetal development and maturation are delayed. It is not age related. (D) Physical risks for the pregnant client older than 35 include increased risk for PIH, cesarean delivery, fetal and neonatal mortality, and trisomy. 27 / 50 A laboratory technique specific for diagnosing Lyme disease is: Polymerase chain reaction Decreased serum calcium level Increased serum potassium level Heterophil antibody test Wrong Answer Correct Answer A) Polymerase chain reaction is the laboratory technique specific for Lyme disease. (B) Heterophil antibody test is used to diagnose mononucleosis. (C) Lyme disease does not decrease the serum calcium level. (D) Lyme disease does not increase the serum potassium level. 28 / 50 When assessing fetal heart rate status during labor, the monitor displays late decelerations with tachycardia and decreasing variability. What action should the nurse take? Turn client on right side. Decrease IV fluids. Continue monitoring because this is a normal occurrence. Report to physician or midwife. Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) This is not a normal occurrence. Late decelerations need prompt intervention for immediate infant recovery. (B) To increase O2 perfusion to the unborn infant, the mother should be placed on her left side. (C) IV fluids should be increased, not decreased. (D) Immediate action is warranted, such as reporting findings, turning mother on left side, administering O2, discontinuing oxytocin (Pitocin), assessing maternal blood pressure and the labor process, preparing for immediate cesarean delivery, and explaining plan of action to client. 29 / 50 Pregnant women with diabetes often have problems related to the effectiveness of insulin in controlling their glucose levels during their second half of pregnancy. The nurse teaches the client that this is due to: Decreased estrogen levels Decreased glomerular filtration and increased tubular absorption Increased human placental lactogen levels Decreased progesterone levels Wrong Answer Correct Answer There is a rise in glomerular filtration rate in the kidneys in conjunction with decreased tubular glucose reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria. (B) Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of estrogen. (C) Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of progesterone. (D) Human placental lactogen levels increase later in pregnancy. This hormonal antagonist reduces insulin’s effectiveness, stimulates lipolysis, and increases the circulation of free fatty acids. 30 / 50 Which of the following activities would be most appropriate during occupational therapy for a client with bipolar disorder? Playing tennis with a staff member Sewing beads on a leather belt Playing cards with other clients Working crossword puzzles Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) This activity is too competitive, and the manic client might become abusive toward the other clients. (B) During mania, the client’s attention span is too short to accomplish this task. (C) This activity uses gross motor skills, eases tension, and expands excess energy. A staff member is better equipped to interact therapeutically with clients. (D) This activity requires the use of fine motor skills and is very tedious. 31 / 50 One of the most dramatic and serious complications associated with bacterial meningitis is Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome, which is: Syndrome of inappropriate antiduretic hormone Auditory nerve damage resulting in permanent hearing loss Peripheral circulatory collapse Cerebral edema resulting in hydrocephalus Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is peripheral circulatory collapse, which may result in extensive and diffuse intravascular coagulation and thrombocytopenia resulting in death. (B) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is a complication of meningitis, but it is not Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. (C) Cerebral edema resulting in hydrocephalus is a complication of meningitis, but it is not Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. (D) Auditory nerve damage resulting in permanent hearing loss is a complication of meningitis, but it is not Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome. 32 / 50 A 25-year-old client believes she may be pregnant with her first child. She schedules an obstetric examination with the nurse practitioner to determine the status of her possible pregnancy. Her last menstrual period began May 20, and her estimated date of confinement using Nägele’s rule is: January 3rd February 27th February 1st March 27th 33 / 50 A child is admitted to the emergency room with her mother. Her mother states that she has been exposed to chickenpox. During the assessment, the nurse would note a characteristic rash: That is covered with vesicular scabs all in the macular stage That appears especially on the cheeks, which gives a"slapped-cheek" appearance That appears profusely on the trunk and sparsely on the extremities That first appears on the neck and spreads downward Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) A rash with vesicular scabs in all stages (macule, papule, vesicle, and crusts). (B) A rash that appears profusely on the trunk and sparsely on the extremities. (C) A rash that first appears on the neck and spreads downward is characteristic of rubeola and rubella. (D) A rash, especially on the cheeks, that gives a "slapped-cheek" appearance is characteristic of roseola. 34 / 50 The physician orders fluoxetine (Prozac) for a depressed client. Which of the following should the nurse remember about fluoxetine? Foods such as aged cheese, yogurt, soy sauce, and bananas should not be eaten with this drug. The therapeutic effect of the drug occurs 24 weeks after treatment is begun. Because fluoxetine is a tricyclic antidepressant, it may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. Fluoxetine may be administered safely in combination with monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors. Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Fluoxetine is not a tricyclic antidepressant. It is an atypical antidepressant. (B) This statement is true. (C) These foods are high in tyramine and should be avoided when the client is taking MAO inhibitors. Fluoxetine is not an MAO inhibitor. (D) Fatal reactions have been reported in clients receiving fluoxetine in combination with MAO inhibitors. 35 / 50 Nursing care for the substance abuse client experiencing alcohol withdrawal delirium includes: Applying ankle and wrist restraints Increasing sensory stimuli Maintaining seizure precautions Restricting fluid intake Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) These clients are at high risk for seizures during the 1st week after cessation of alcohol intake. (B) Fluid intake should be increased to prevent dehydration. (C) Environmental stimuli should be decreased to prevent precipitation of seizures. (D) Application of restraints may cause the client to increase his or her physical activity and may eventually lead to exhaustion. 36 / 50 The physician recommends immediate hospital admission for a client with PIH. She says to the nurse, "It’s not so easy for me to just go right to the hospital like that." After acknowledging her feelings, which of these approaches by the nurse would probably be best? Stress to the client that her husband would want her to do what is best for her health. Repeat the physician’s reasons for advising immediate hospitalization. Explain to the client that she is ultimately responsible for her own welfare and that of her baby. Explore with the client her perceptions of why she is unable to go to the hospital. Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) This answer does not hold the client accountable for her own health. (B) The nurse should explore potential reasons for the client’s anxiety: are there small children at home, is the husband out of town? The nurse should aid the client in seeking support or interventions to decrease the anxiety of hospitalization. (C) Repeating the physician’s reason for recommending hospitalization may not aid the client in dealing with her reasons for anxiety. (D) The concern for self and welfare of baby may be secondary to a woman who is in a crisis situation. The nurse should explore the client’s potential reasons for anxiety. For example, is there another child in the home who is ill, or is there a husband who is overseas and not able to return on short notice? 37 / 50 The usual treatment for diabetes insipidus is with IM or SC injection of vasopressin tannate in oil. Nursing care related to the client receiving IM vasopressin tannate would include: Limit fluid intake to 500 mL/day. Store the medication in a refrigerator and allow to stand at room temperature for 30 minutes prior to administration. Weigh once a week and report to the physician any weight gain of10 lb. Hold the vial under warm water for 1015 minutes and shake vigorously before drawing medication into the syringe. Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Weight should be obtained daily. (B) Fluid is not restricted but is given according to urine output. (C) The medication does not have to be stored in a refrigerator. (D) Holding the vial under warm water for 1015 minutes or rolling between your hands and shaking vigorously before drawing medication into the syringe activates the medication in the oil solution. 38 / 50 When administering phenytoin (Dilantin) to a child, the nurse should be aware that a toxic effect of phenytoin therapy is: Stephens-Johnson syndrome Folate deficiency Folate deficiency Leukopenic aplastic anemia Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Stephens-Johnson syndrome is a toxic effect of phenytoin. (B) Folate deficiency is a side effect of phenytoin, but not a toxic effect. (C) Leukopenic aplastic anemia is a toxic effect of carbamazepine (Tegretol). (D) Granulocytosis and nephrosis are toxic effects of trimethadione (Tridione). 39 / 50 Hypoxia is the primary problem related to near-drowning victims. The first organ that sustains irreversible damage after submersion in water is the: Kidney (urinary system) Heart (circulatory system) Heart (circulatory system) Brain (nervous system) Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) The kidney can survive after 30 minutes of water submersion. (B) The cerebral neurons sustain irreversible damage after 46 minutes of water submersion. (C) The heart can survive up to 30 minutes of water submersion. (D) The lungs can survive up to 30 minutes of water submersion. 40 / 50 Three weeks following discharge, a male client is readmitted to the psychiatric unit for depression. His wife stated that he had threatened to kill himself with a handgun. As the nurse admits him to the unit, he says, "I wish I were dead because I am worthless to everyone; I guess I am just no good." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time? "You’ve been feeling sad and alone for some time now?" "Don’t you think this is a sign of your illness?" "I know with your wife and new baby that you do have a lot to live for." "I don’t think you are worthless. I’m glad to see you, and we will help you." Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) This response does not acknowledge the client’s feelings. (B) This is a closed question and does not encourage communication. (C) This response negates the client’s feelings and does not require a response from the client. (D) This acknowledges the client’s implied thoughts and feelings and encourages a response. 41 / 50 What is the most effective method to identify early breast cancer lumps? Monthly breast self-examination Yearly checkups performed by physician Mammograms every 3 years Ultrasounds every 3 years Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Mammograms are less effective than breast self-examination for the diagnosis of abnormalities in younger women, who have denser breast tissue. They are more effective forwomen older than 40. (B) Up to 15% of early-stage breast cancers are detected by physical examination; however, 95% are detected by women doing breast self-examination. (C) Ultrasound is used primarily to determine the location of cysts and to distinguish cysts from solid masses. (D) Monthly breast self-examination has been shown to be the most effective method for early detection of breast cancer. Approximately 95% of lumps are detected by women themselves. 42 / 50 Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality. When evaluating the pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy is: 90 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL 100 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL 40 mg/dL and 130 mg/dL 70 mg/dL and 120 mg/dL Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) The recommended range is 70120 mg/dL to reduce the risk of perinatal mortality. (B, C, D) These levels are not recommended. The higher the blood glucose, the worse the prognosis for the fetus. Hypoglycemia can also have detrimental effects on the fetus. 43 / 50 The day following his admission, the nurse sits down by a male client on the sofa in the dayroom. He was admitted for depression and thoughts of suicide. He looks at the nurse and says, "My life is so bad no one can do anything to help me." The most helpful initial response by the nurse would be: "It will take a few weeks for you to feel better, so you need to be patient." "You are telling me that you are feeling hopeless at this point?" "Let’s play cards with some of the other clients to get your mind off your problems for now." "It concerns me that you feel so badly when you have so many positive things in your life." Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) This response does not acknowledge the client’s feelings and may increase his feelings of guilt. (B) This response denotes false reassurance. (C) This response acknowledges the client’s feelings and invites a response. (D) This response changes the subject and does not allow the client to talk about his feelings. 44 / 50 A schizophrenic client has made sexual overtures toward her physician on numerous occasions. During lunch, the client tells the nurse, "My doctor is in love with me and wants to marry me." This client is using which of the following defense mechanisms? Suppression Reaction formation Displacement Projection Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Displacement involves transferring feelings to a more acceptable object. (B) Projection involves attributing one’s thoughts or feelings to another person. (C) Reaction formation involves transforming an unacceptable impulse into the opposite behavior. (D) Suppression involves the intentional exclusion of unpleasant thoughts or experiences. 45 / 50 Proper positioning for the child who is in Bryant’s traction is: Both hips flexed at a 90-degree angle with the knees extended and the buttocks elevated off the bed Both hips and knees maintained at a 90-degree flexion angle, and the back flat on the bed Both legs extended, and the hips are not flexed Both legs extended, and the hips are not flexed Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) The child’s weight supplies the countertraction for Bryant’s traction; the buttocks are slightly elevated off the bed, and the hips are flexed at a 90-degree angle. Both legs are suspended by skin traction. (B) The child in Buck’s extension traction maintains the legs extended and parallel to the bed. (C) The child in Russell traction maintains hip flexion of the affected leg at the prescribed angle with the leg extended. (D) The child in "9090" traction maintains both hips and knees at a 90-degree flexion angle and the back is flat on the bed. 46 / 50 A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder continues to be hyperactive and to lose weight. Which of the following nutritional interventions would be most therapeutic for him at this time? Giving him a quiet place where he can sit down to eat meals Allowing him to eat when and what he wants Tube feedings with nutritional supplements Small, frequent feedings of foods that can be carried Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) The manic client is unable to sit still long enough to eat an adequate meal. Small, frequent feedings with finger foods allow him to eat during periods of activity. (B) This type of therapy should be implemented when other methods have been exhausted. (C) The manic client should not be in control of his treatment plan. This type of client may forget to eat. (D) The manic client is unable to sit down to eat full meals. 47 / 50 After 3 weeks of treatment, a severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better and starts interacting appropriately with other clients and staff. The nurse knows that this client has an increased risk for: Suicide Violence toward others Psychotic behavior Exacerbation of depressive symptoms Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) When the severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better, it often indicates that the client has made the decision to kill himself or herself and has developed a plan to do so. (B) Improvement in behavior is not indicative of an exacerbation of depressive symptoms. (C) Thedepressed client has a tendency for self-violence, not violence toward others. (D) Depressive behavior is not always accompanied by psychotic behavior. 48 / 50 Which of the following risk factors associated with breast cancer would a nurse consider most significant in a client’s history? Nulliparity Maternal family history of breast cancer Menarche after age 13 Early menopause Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) Women who begin menarche late (after 13 years old) have a lower risk of developing breast cancer than women who have begun earlier. Average age for menarche is 12.5 years. (B) Women who have never been pregnant have an increased risk for breast cancer, but a positive family history poses an even greater risk. (C) A positive family history puts a woman at an increased risk of developing breast cancer. It is recommended that mammography screening begin 5 years before the age at which an immediate female relative was diagnosed with breast cancer. (D) Early menopause decreases the risk of developing breast cancer. 49 / 50 A long-term goal for the nurse in planning care for a depressed, suicidal client would be to: Isolate him from stressful situations that may precipitate a depressive episode. Have him sign a "no-suicide" contract. Assist him to develop more effective coping mechanisms. Provide him with a safe and structured environment. Wrong Answer Correct Answer (A) This statement represents a short-term goal. (B) Long-term therapy should be directed toward assisting the client to cope effectively with stress. (C) Suicide contracts represent short- term interventions. (D) This statement represents an unrealistic goal. Stressful situations cannot be avoided in reality. 50 / 50 The nurse practitioner determines that a client is approximately 9 weeks’ gestation. During the visit, the practitioner informs the client about symptoms of physical changes that she will experience during her first trimester, such as: Nausea and vomiting A 68 lb weight gain Abdominal enlargement Quickening Your score isThe average score is 20% 0% Restart quiz Exit